ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with an NG tube is experiencing nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Position the client on their left side
- B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
- C. Replace the NG tube with a new one
- D. Increase the suction setting to relieve the blockage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This can help clear any blockages in the tube, which may be causing the symptoms. Positioning the client on their left side may be helpful for enteral feedings but is not the priority in this situation. Replacing the NG tube should not be the initial step unless irrigation fails to resolve the issue. Increasing the suction setting without attempting to clear the blockage can be harmful to the client.
2. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?
- A. Check for facial droop
- B. Assess speech clarity
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Call for emergency assistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and is receiving aspirin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin therapy is contraindicated in clients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding because aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding. Option B, prothrombin time of 12 seconds, is within the normal range and does not indicate a concern related to aspirin therapy. Option C, platelet count of 180,000/mm³, is also within the normal range and does not suggest a need for reporting to the provider in the context of aspirin therapy. Option D, creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and is not directly related to aspirin therapy in this scenario.
4. What are the key components of a respiratory assessment?
- A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- B. Inspection, Observation, Auscultation, Percussion
- C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
- D. Observation, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for symmetry and signs of distress, palpating for tenderness or abnormal masses, performing percussion to assess underlying tissues, and auscultating lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect as observation is a broad term that can encompass both inspection and palpation. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation is usually performed after inspection and palpation. Choice D is incorrect as observation should be more specific, and auscultation is a key component that is typically done last in a respiratory assessment.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Walk for at least 30 minutes each day
- B. Avoid sunlight exposure
- C. Take vitamin B12 supplements
- D. Increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day. Adequate calcium intake is essential for maintaining bone density and reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Walking for at least 30 minutes each day is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to osteoporosis prevention as calcium intake. Sunlight exposure is important for vitamin D synthesis, which is necessary for calcium absorption, so avoiding sunlight exposure would not be recommended. Vitamin B12 supplements are not directly related to bone health or osteoporosis prevention, so this would not be the most appropriate recommendation.
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