a nurse is using naegeles rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in october what is the expected da
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.

2. A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to another unit. Which finding should the nurse include in the transfer report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing a client for transfer to another unit, the nurse should include all the findings mentioned in the choices in the transfer report. It is crucial to document the client's response to pain medication as it helps the receiving unit manage the client's pain effectively. Reviewing the ongoing discharge plan ensures that the client's care continues seamlessly after the transfer. Noting recent physical changes is vital for the receiving unit to monitor the client's condition accurately. Therefore, all of the above findings are essential for ensuring continuity of care and providing comprehensive information to the receiving unit.

3. A nurse is teaching postoperative care to the parents of a toddler following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elbow splints are utilized to prevent the child from touching the surgical site. However, it is essential to remove them periodically to conduct range-of-motion exercises to prevent joint stiffness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because providing an orthodontic pacifier, offering fluids using a straw, and cleansing the suture line with a cotton-tip swab are not directly related to postoperative care following a cleft palate repair.

4. A nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home. The nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services. When a family member asks how respite care can help, which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Respite care is designed to give primary caregivers temporary relief from the responsibilities of care, allowing them to take a break. Choice A is incorrect because respite care is not primarily focused on providing medical support to the client. Choice B is incorrect as respite care does not specifically assist with financial planning for the client's needs. Choice C is incorrect as respite care does not provide long-term housing, but rather short-term relief for caregivers.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.

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