Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Glaucoma
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polycythemia
• D. Migraine headaches

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.

2. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
• B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
• D. aPTT 30 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.

4. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

• A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
• B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
• C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
• D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A paradoxical pulse is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis that requires immediate intervention. It results from decreased cardiac output due to increased pressure in the pericardial sac. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely treatment to prevent further deterioration. Dependent edema and substernal chest pain are common in pericarditis but are not as urgent as a paradoxical pulse. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis and indicates inflammation but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse.

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