ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A nurse is teaching clients in a prenatal class about the importance of taking folic acid during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the clients to consume an adequate amount of folic acid from various sources to prevent which of the following fetal abnormalities?
- A. Neural tube defect
- B. Trisomy 21
- C. Cleft lip
- D. Atrial septal defect
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should educate clients that inadequate folic acid intake is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects in newborns. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid from sources like fortified cereals, oranges, artichokes, liver, broccoli, and asparagus can help prevent this serious fetal abnormality. Trisomy 21 (Choice B) is caused by an extra chromosome 21 and is not preventable by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (Choice C) and atrial septal defect (Choice D) are not directly linked to folic acid intake during pregnancy.
2. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
- A. Incomplete miscarriage
- B. Missed miscarriage
- C. Inevitable miscarriage
- D. Complete miscarriage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Missed miscarriage.' In a missed miscarriage, fetal and placental tissues are retained in the uterus after fetal demise, which matches the scenario described in the question. This situation often requires medical or surgical intervention to remove the remaining products of conception and prevent complications. 'Incomplete miscarriage' (Choice A) typically involves partial expulsion of products of conception, 'Inevitable miscarriage' (Choice C) indicates that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped, and 'Complete miscarriage' (Choice D) signifies that all products of conception have been expelled from the uterus.
3. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
- A. Blood-tinged sputum
- B. Dizziness
- C. Pallor
- D. Somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
- B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
- C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
- D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.
5. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
- B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
- C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
- D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.
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