Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

• A. Increase in blood pressure
• B. Fundus firm to palpation
• C. Increase in lochia
• D. Report of absent breast pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.

2. A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?

• A. Postpartum fatigue
• B. Postpartum psychosis
• C. Letting-go phase
• D. Postpartum blues

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Postpartum blues. Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, are common after childbirth and are characterized by symptoms like tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown. This condition is typically self-limiting and resolves without specific treatment. Postpartum fatigue (choice A) refers to extreme tiredness after childbirth but does not typically include symptoms like tearfulness and insomnia. Postpartum psychosis (choice B) is a severe condition that includes symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are not present in the scenario. The letting-go phase (choice C) does not represent a specific postpartum condition related to the symptoms described.

3. In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)

• A. Client has delivered one newborn at term
• B. Client has experienced no preterm labor
• C. Client has had two prior pregnancies
• D. ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's health record data is interpreted as follows: G3 (gravida 3 - total number of pregnancies), T1 (term births - number of full-term deliveries), P0 (preterm births - number of preterm deliveries), A1 (abortions/miscarriages - total number of miscarriages or abortions), L1 (living children - total number of living children). Therefore, the client has had three pregnancies, one full-term delivery, no preterm labor, one miscarriage/abortion, and one living child. The correct interpretation is that the client has delivered one newborn at term, experienced no preterm labor, had two prior pregnancies, and has one living child. Therefore, choice D is correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide a comprehensive interpretation of all aspects of the client's health record data.

4. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

5. A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?

• A. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility
• B. Absence of vitamin K
• C. Physiologic jaundice
• D. Maternal cocaine abuse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The yellow skin observed in the newborn suggests jaundice. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is a common cause of jaundice in newborns. This occurs when the mother and baby have different blood types, leading to the baby's immune system attacking the red blood cells, causing jaundice. Physiologic jaundice, which is a normal process due to the breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, typically presents after the first 24 hours of life. Absence of vitamin K leads to bleeding issues, not jaundice. Maternal cocaine abuse does not directly cause jaundice in newborns.

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