a nurse is teaching a client with liver cirrhosis about managing their condition which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with liver cirrhosis should avoid acetaminophen because it can cause further liver damage. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and in individuals with liver disease, it can lead to liver toxicity. Therefore, clients with liver cirrhosis should use alternative pain medications that do not affect the liver, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids as prescribed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements for managing liver cirrhosis. Avoiding alcohol helps prevent further liver damage, limiting salt intake helps manage fluid retention and complications like ascites, and eating a balanced diet supports overall health and helps prevent malnutrition.

2. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

4. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.

5. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

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