Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo radiation therapy for breast cancer about potential adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Constipation
• C. Hair loss
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that the nurse should include in the teaching is fatigue. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, particularly with prolonged treatment. Constipation, hair loss, and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices. Fatigue can significantly impact a patient's quality of life during treatment and should be addressed proactively by healthcare providers.

2. What are common signs of hypoglycemia?

• A. Shakiness or Tremors
• B. Sweating
• C. Hunger
• D. Confusion or Irritability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness or tremors, sweating, and hunger. These symptoms indicate low blood sugar levels. Confusion or irritability are more associated with severe hypoglycemia, while the immediate treatment for hypoglycemia involves providing a source of glucose to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

3. While performing assessments on newborns in the nursery, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A two-day old newborn with a respiratory rate of 70.
• B. A 16-hour old newborn who has not passed meconium yet.
• C. A two-day old newborn with a small amount of blood-tinged vaginal discharge.
• D. A 16-hour old newborn with a blood glucose of 45 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 70 in a two-day old newborn is above the normal range and should be reported to the provider. This finding may indicate respiratory distress or another underlying issue that needs prompt attention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits for newborns and do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication into the client's nondominant arm.
• B. Pull the skin laterally before inserting the needle.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin subcutaneously is to pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger. Pinching the skin helps to lift the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of injecting into the muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as the injection site for enoxaparin is typically in the abdomen or thigh, not the arm. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the skin laterally is not a recommended technique for subcutaneous injections. Choice C is also incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising.

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