Nursing Elites

1. During a presentation on basic first aid, a nurse educator evaluates a newly licensed home health nurse's understanding of heat stroke. Which symptom indicates the client has heat stroke?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Clammy skin
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke can lead to hypotension, which is low blood pressure. This is a common symptom of heat stroke and requires immediate intervention. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), clammy skin, and bradypnea (slow breathing) are not typically associated with heat stroke. In heat stroke, the body's temperature regulation system fails, leading to a rapid rise in body temperature, which can cause various symptoms including hypotension.

2. A patient is being educated about a clear liquid diet. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?

• A. Lemon-lime sports drinks
• B. Ginger ale
• C. Black coffee
• D. Orange sherbet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange sherbet. A clear liquid diet consists of liquids that are transparent and easily digestible. Orange sherbet, being a frozen dessert, is not a clear liquid and should be avoided. Choices A, B, and C are all acceptable in a clear liquid diet. Lemon-lime sports drinks, ginger ale, and black coffee are clear liquids that can be included in the diet as they are transparent and leave little residue in the gastrointestinal tract, unlike orange sherbet.

3. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

5. A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?

• A. 20 mL
• B. 15 mL
• C. 25 mL
• D. 10 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.

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