a nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo a colonoscopy about the procedure which of the following statements by the client indicates an understa
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1. A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.

2. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

4. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.

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