ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You do not need to have a full bladder for the procedure
- B. You will not receive magnesium sulfate before the procedure
- C. The procedure will take longer than 30 minutes to complete
- D. You should report if you experience any contractions after the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.
2. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?
- A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
- B. Tenderness present during menstruation
- C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
- D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxytocin IV
- B. Perform fundal massage
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.
4. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
- A. Kegel exercises
- B. Isometric exercises
- C. Circumduction exercises
- D. Uterine extension exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.
5. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
- B. A sliced apple and red grapes
- C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
- D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.
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