ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You do not need to have a full bladder for the procedure
- B. You will not receive magnesium sulfate before the procedure
- C. The procedure will take longer than 30 minutes to complete
- D. You should report if you experience any contractions after the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.
2. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.
3. A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?
- A. I will start feeling better immediately after starting the medication
- B. I can expect to urinate frequently while on this medication
- C. I understand I may experience difficulty sleeping on this medication
- D. I should decrease my sodium intake while on this medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.
4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime
- B. Monitor your blood glucose level before each meal
- C. Stop taking the medication if you develop muscle pain
- D. You may experience diarrhea with this medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You may experience diarrhea with this medication.' Diarrhea is a common side effect of metformin, particularly when initiating the medication. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential side effect. Option A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is not directly related to metformin use. Option C is incorrect as muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin and does not warrant stopping the medication.
5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 4
- B. 7 (comatose)
- C. 9
- D. 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
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