Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

• A. Abnormal mouth movements
• B. Inability to stand without assistance
• C. Paralysis of the right arm
• D. Loss of appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

2. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

3. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Polyuria
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Liver function
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is planning a community education program about colorectal cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the professional identify as modifiable?

• A. Family history
• B. Smoking
• C. Age
• D. Gender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for colorectal cancer. It is within an individual's control to quit smoking, thereby reducing their risk of developing colorectal cancer. Choices A, C, and D are non-modifiable risk factors. Family history, age, and gender are factors that individuals cannot change or control. While family history can influence risk, it is not something that can be modified. Age and gender are also non-modifiable factors when it comes to colorectal cancer risk.

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