Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in seclusion when she is confused
• B. Request a prescription for PRN restraints when the client is wandering
• C. Dim the lighting in the client’s room
• D. Leave one side rail up on the client's bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to leave one side rail up on the client's bed. This action can help prevent falls while allowing the client to get up safely when needed, reducing the risk of injury from wandering. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not appropriate as it can lead to increased agitation and distress. Requesting restraints (Choice B) should be avoided as it can increase the risk of injuries and is not recommended for clients with Alzheimer's. Dimming the lighting (Choice C) may increase confusion and disorientation in clients with Alzheimer's disease.

3. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?

• A. Position the client supine
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
• C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

4. Following delivery, the nurse places the newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Which of the following is this action used to prevent?

• A. Cold stress
• B. Hyperthermia
• C. Dehydration
• D. Hypoxia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the newborn under a radiant heat warmer is used to prevent cold stress. Cold stress in newborns can lead to increased oxygen consumption and energy expenditure as the body tries to maintain its temperature, potentially resulting in hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis if not addressed. The radiant warmer helps maintain the infant's body temperature, reducing the risk of cold stress and its complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of using a radiant warmer in this scenario is to prevent cold stress specifically, not hyperthermia, dehydration, or hypoxia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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