ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.
2. While documenting client care, which of the following entries should the nurse identify as an example of implementing client care?
- A. Contacting the provider to report client findings
- B. Administering medications as prescribed
- C. Reviewing the client's lab results
- D. Discussing the care plan with the family
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering medications as prescribed is a clear example of implementing client care because it involves carrying out a specific aspect of the care plan. Contacting the provider to report client findings is more related to assessment and communication. Reviewing the client's lab results is part of assessment and data collection. Discussing the care plan with the family is focused on collaboration and planning, rather than direct implementation.
3. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory status
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lip-smacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of dysphagia. Which of the following foods should be included when initiating feeding?
- A. Beef broth
- B. Oatmeal
- C. Apple juice
- D. Toast
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oatmeal is a soft, easy-to-swallow food, making it appropriate for clients with dysphagia, as it minimizes the risk of aspiration compared to liquids or hard foods. Beef broth (Choice A) is a liquid and may pose a risk of aspiration. Apple juice (Choice C) is a liquid and can also be a choking hazard for individuals with dysphagia. Toast (Choice D) is a hard food that may be difficult for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.
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