ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about increasing calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended as the best source of calcium?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Yogurt
- C. Spinach
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt is the best choice for increasing calcium intake in a client with osteoporosis. It provides around 300-400 mg of calcium per serving, making it an excellent food source for meeting their calcium needs. Broccoli, spinach, and almonds, while nutritious, do not provide as much calcium per serving as yogurt and are not as effective in helping clients with osteoporosis increase their calcium intake.
2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Position the client supine
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
- C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine. Which of the following is the highest priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Fever
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that leads to infections. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, a potentially life-threatening complication, and must be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Constipation) is a common side effect of clozapine but is not as urgent as fever. Blurred vision (Choice B) and dry mouth (Choice D) are side effects of clozapine but are not indicative of a life-threatening condition like agranulocytosis.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.
5. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
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