a nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration what should the nurse intervene for
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

2. A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born vaginally with vacuum extractor assistance. The nurse notes swelling over the newborn's head that crosses the suture line. The nurse should identify the swelling as which of the following findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Caput succedaneum is the correct answer. It is the swelling of the soft tissues of the head that crosses suture lines, often resulting from pressure during delivery, especially with vacuum extraction. Nevus simplex (Choice A) is a pink or red birthmark that is flat and usually fades on its own. Cephalohematoma (Choice C) is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum, often caused by birth trauma. Erythema toxicum (Choice D) is a common rash in newborns that is benign and typically resolves on its own. In this case, the description of swelling over the newborn's head crossing the suture line is characteristic of caput succedaneum, which is a common finding in newborns after vaginal delivery.

4. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.

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