Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

2. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rho(D) immune globulin
• B. A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness
• C. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output
• D. A client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Abdominal pain
• C. Weight gain
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal pain. Abdominal pain, often severe, is a hallmark sign of pancreatitis. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and tenderness in the abdomen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing for abdominal pain in a client with suspected pancreatitis.

4. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. Do you have any active lesions?
• C. Are you positive for beta strep?
• D. How far apart are your contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.7 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.

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