ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?
- A. Serum troponin
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.
2. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
- A. Vertex
- B. Shoulder
- C. Breech
- D. Mentum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- C. Use a 1-inch needle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.
4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter into a female client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inflate the balloon with 10 mL of sterile water prior to insertion
- B. Cleanse the client’s labia and meatus using a front-to-back motion
- C. Ask the client to bear down while inserting the catheter
- D. Inflate the catheter balloon after urine begins to flow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when inserting an indwelling urinary catheter into a female client is to inflate the catheter balloon after urine begins to flow. Inflating the balloon before urine starts flowing can lead to incorrect placement in the urethra, causing trauma. Cleansing the labia and meatus should be done before the insertion, but the crucial step of inflating the balloon should occur after the catheter is correctly placed. Asking the client to bear down is not necessary during catheter insertion.
5. Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is stored in the freezer?
- A. DPT
- B. OPV
- C. Hepatitis B vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is OPV. Oral Polio Vaccine should be stored in the freezer to maintain its potency. Vaccines like DPT, Hepatitis B vaccine, and Measles vaccine are typically stored in the refrigerator to ensure their efficacy.
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