Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

2. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. You may experience weight gain.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K.
• C. Expect increased urinary output.
• D. You may have dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a common side effect of prednisone. The nurse should educate the client about the possibility of weight gain and the need to monitor it closely during treatment with prednisone. Choice B is incorrect because increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone therapy. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is more likely to cause fluid retention rather than increased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect as dark, tarry stools are not a common side effect of prednisone.

3. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

4. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Avoid dairy products while taking the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When taking alendronate, it is important to take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. This helps ensure that the medication reaches the stomach and is properly absorbed. Lying down after taking alendronate can increase the risk of esophageal irritation, which is why it is recommended to stay upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Taking the medication at bedtime or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions associated with alendronate administration. Therefore, the correct instruction to include is to take the medication with a full glass of water.

5. The healthcare provider is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who has been prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The healthcare provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Whole milk
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Fried chicken
• D. Bacon and eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet. Oatmeal is a heart-healthy option that is low in cholesterol and saturated fats. Fresh fruits are also a good source of essential nutrients and fiber. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Whole milk, fried chicken, bacon, and eggs are high in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental to individuals with coronary artery disease.

Similar Questions