Nursing Elites

1. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, it can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring the serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly impacted by furosemide. Serum sodium (Choice B) may be affected, but monitoring potassium is more critical due to the risk of arrhythmias. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice D) is important for assessing kidney function but is not the most crucial value to monitor in a client taking furosemide.

2. A client with myocardial infarction (MI) has been transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. The nurse assisting in caring for the client expects to note which type of activity prescribed?

• A. Strict bed rest for 24 hours
• B. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
• C. Unrestricted activities because the client is monitored
• D. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After being transferred from the CCU to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring, the client with MI is typically prescribed bathroom privileges and self-care activities. This approach allows for gradual recovery and mobility while still being closely monitored, promoting the client's overall well-being and independence. Choice A, strict bed rest for 24 hours, is too restrictive and not recommended for MI patients as it can lead to complications like deep vein thrombosis. Choice C, unrestricted activities, is also not appropriate as MI patients usually require monitoring and gradual re-introduction to activities. Choice D, unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet, may be too strenuous for a client who just got transferred from the CCU and needs a more gradual approach to activity.

3. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?

• A. You will need to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure.
• B. You will not be able to move around during the procedure.
• C. You will be required to lie still for several hours after the test.
• D. You will not have to drink any fluids immediately before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
• D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.

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