Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.

2. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

3. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypotension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

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