the nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving digoxin lanoxin which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of di
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. The client with a history of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity as low potassium levels enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity and potential adverse effects. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not directly associated with an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) can contribute to digoxin toxicity, but hypokalemia has a more significant impact on increasing the risk.

2. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.

3. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.

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