Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You can still eat sugar, but you must count it in your carbohydrate count for the day.
• B. You need to avoid all forms of sugar to keep your blood glucose levels under control.
• C. You can eat unlimited amounts of proteins and fats since they do not affect blood glucose levels.
• D. You will need to take an oral hypoglycemic agent every day to manage your blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is that they can still eat sugar, but they must count it in their carbohydrate intake for the day. This is important because clients with type 1 diabetes need to manage their blood glucose levels by calculating their carbohydrate intake, including sugars. Choice B is incorrect because total avoidance of sugar is not necessary, but monitoring and including it in the carbohydrate count is essential. Choice C is incorrect as proteins and fats can also affect blood glucose levels and should be consumed in moderation. Choice D is incorrect since oral hypoglycemic agents are not used in type 1 diabetes mellitus, as insulin replacement therapy is the mainstay of treatment.

2. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

3. What action should a healthcare provider take for a client with a new colostomy?

• A. Empty the colostomy bag when it is half full.
• B. Place aspirin in the colostomy bag to decrease odor.
• C. Use sterile technique when caring for the stoma.
• D. Change the pouch every 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emptying the colostomy bag when it is half full is crucial to prevent leakage and detachment from the skin. This practice helps to maintain the integrity of the colostomy system, reducing the risk of skin irritation and odor. It is essential for client comfort and overall stoma care.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid foods that are high in potassium.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
• D. Avoid foods that are high in sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is to increase the intake of vitamin D-rich foods. Vitamin D helps improve calcium absorption, which is beneficial for bone health and may help alleviate symptoms of osteoarthritis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is important for bone health, the focus should be on vitamin D for calcium absorption. Option B is incorrect as potassium is generally not restricted in osteoarthritis. Option D is also incorrect as sodium restriction is more relevant for conditions like hypertension or heart failure, not specifically for osteoarthritis.

5. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

Similar Questions