Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You can still eat sugar, but you must count it in your carbohydrate count for the day.
• B. You need to avoid all forms of sugar to keep your blood glucose levels under control.
• C. You can eat unlimited amounts of proteins and fats since they do not affect blood glucose levels.
• D. You will need to take an oral hypoglycemic agent every day to manage your blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is that they can still eat sugar, but they must count it in their carbohydrate intake for the day. This is important because clients with type 1 diabetes need to manage their blood glucose levels by calculating their carbohydrate intake, including sugars. Choice B is incorrect because total avoidance of sugar is not necessary, but monitoring and including it in the carbohydrate count is essential. Choice C is incorrect as proteins and fats can also affect blood glucose levels and should be consumed in moderation. Choice D is incorrect since oral hypoglycemic agents are not used in type 1 diabetes mellitus, as insulin replacement therapy is the mainstay of treatment.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of lactose intolerance and is receiving teaching from a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• B. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in teaching a client with lactose intolerance is to avoid foods that contain lactose. Lactose intolerance results from the body's inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. By avoiding foods containing lactose, the client can manage symptoms and prevent complications associated with lactose intolerance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods (choice B) may be beneficial for general health but is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Avoiding gluten (choice C) is necessary for individuals with celiac disease, not lactose intolerance. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) would worsen symptoms in individuals with lactose intolerance due to the lactose content.

3. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of foods high in vitamin D.
• B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
• C. I should increase my intake of foods high in phosphorus.
• D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin D is beneficial for improving calcium absorption and managing osteoporosis. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, which is essential for bone health and can aid in managing osteoporosis effectively. Choice B is incorrect because reducing calcium intake would be counterproductive for a client with osteoporosis, as calcium is crucial for bone strength. Choice C is incorrect as phosphorus, while important for bone health, does not directly impact osteoporosis management as much as vitamin D and calcium. Choice D is incorrect as potassium is not directly linked to osteoporosis management, and reducing its intake is not typically part of dietary recommendations for osteoporosis.

4. When should discharge planning begin for a client admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation after a total hip arthroplasty?

• A. One week prior to the client's discharge
• B. Upon the client's admission to the care facility
• C. Once the discharge date is identified
• D. When the client addresses the topic with the nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin upon the client's admission to the care facility. This early start allows the healthcare team to conduct assessments, set goals, and coordinate services for a smooth transition back home or to the community. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely arrangements, leading to optimal outcomes and continuity of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until one week before discharge, after the discharge date is identified, or until the client brings up the topic may lead to rushed decision-making, inadequate arrangements, and a less effective transition process.

5. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

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