Nursing Elites

1. A client has a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a heat lamp to the area for 20 minutes each day.
• B. Change the dressing on the heel every 12 hours.
• C. Apply a transparent dressing over the heel.
• D. Use a water pressure mattress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying a transparent dressing over the heel is beneficial as it can protect the ulcer from friction and shear, and allow for continuous observation of the wound. This intervention promotes healing and prevents further damage to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because applying heat can increase the risk of tissue damage and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as changing the dressing every 12 hours may disrupt the wound healing process and is not necessary for a stage 1 pressure ulcer. Choice D is incorrect because using a water pressure mattress is not a specific intervention for a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel.

2. When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, which of the following actions should the nurse take when speaking with the client?

• A. Speak in a high-pitched voice.
• B. Exaggerate lip movements.
• C. Face the client when speaking.
• D. Use a monotone voice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, it is essential for the nurse to face the client when speaking. By facing the client, the nurse allows the individual to read lips and see facial expressions, which can significantly improve communication effectiveness. This approach facilitates better understanding and helps the client feel more connected during interactions. Speaking in a high-pitched voice (Choice A) is not recommended as it may distort speech sounds. Exaggerating lip movements (Choice B) can be patronizing and ineffective. Using a monotone voice (Choice D) lacks intonation that helps convey meaning and emotions in speech, making it harder for the client to understand.

3. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

4. A client has a new prescription for a potassium-sparing diuretic. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Bananas
• B. Oranges
• C. Spinach
• D. Apples

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients on potassium-sparing diuretics need to avoid high-potassium foods to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples are a low-potassium fruit, making them a suitable recommendation for clients on this type of diuretic. Bananas, oranges, and spinach are high-potassium foods that should be avoided by clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics to prevent complications such as hyperkalemia.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasotracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Suction during inhalation.
• B. Apply intermittent suction during insertion.
• C. Place the client in a supine position.
• D. Insert the catheter while the client is inhaling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inserting the catheter while the client is inhaling helps to align the trachea and vocal cords, reducing the risk of trauma to the respiratory tract. This technique also facilitates easier passage of the catheter into the trachea, enhancing the effectiveness of the suctioning procedure.

Similar Questions