Nursing Elites

1. A client has a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a heat lamp to the area for 20 minutes each day.
• B. Change the dressing on the heel every 12 hours.
• C. Apply a transparent dressing over the heel.
• D. Use a water pressure mattress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying a transparent dressing over the heel is beneficial as it can protect the ulcer from friction and shear, and allow for continuous observation of the wound. This intervention promotes healing and prevents further damage to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because applying heat can increase the risk of tissue damage and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as changing the dressing every 12 hours may disrupt the wound healing process and is not necessary for a stage 1 pressure ulcer. Choice D is incorrect because using a water pressure mattress is not a specific intervention for a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel.

2. A healthcare professional is supervising a newly licensed colleague who is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed colleague requires intervention?

• A. Selecting a 25-gauge needle
• B. Administering the injection at a 45° angle
• C. Using the ventrogluteal site for the injection
• D. Aspirating for blood return before injecting the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering an intramuscular injection at a 90° angle is essential for proper medication delivery into the muscle tissue. Injecting at a 45° angle is incorrect for intramuscular injections and is typically used for subcutaneous injections where the needle is inserted into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Choice A is correct as selecting a 25-gauge needle is appropriate for an intramuscular injection. Choice C is also correct as the ventrogluteal site is a suitable site for intramuscular injections. Choice D is correct as aspirating for blood return is a necessary step to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel before injecting the medication.

3. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

4. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of COPD is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-calorie foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-protein foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client with a new diagnosis of COPD is that they should increase their intake of high-calorie foods. This is important to help maintain energy levels and manage weight. COPD can lead to increased energy expenditure due to the increased work of breathing, making it crucial to consume adequate calories for energy. High-calorie foods can help prevent weight loss and support overall nutritional status in COPD patients. Choice B is incorrect because high-protein foods are important for maintaining muscle mass in COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid foods that contain lactose unless the client is lactose intolerant. Choice D is incorrect as increasing high-fiber foods may exacerbate symptoms like bloating and gas in COPD patients.

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