Nursing Elites

1. A client has a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a heat lamp to the area for 20 minutes each day.
• B. Change the dressing on the heel every 12 hours.
• C. Apply a transparent dressing over the heel.
• D. Use a water pressure mattress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying a transparent dressing over the heel is beneficial as it can protect the ulcer from friction and shear, and allow for continuous observation of the wound. This intervention promotes healing and prevents further damage to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because applying heat can increase the risk of tissue damage and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as changing the dressing every 12 hours may disrupt the wound healing process and is not necessary for a stage 1 pressure ulcer. Choice D is incorrect because using a water pressure mattress is not a specific intervention for a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel.

2. A client with dysphagia and at risk for aspiration needs care planning. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to drink thickened liquids.
• B. Instruct the client to swallow with chin tucked.
• C. Provide the client with a cup with a lid.
• D. Place the client in Fowler's position for meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in Fowler's position is crucial in preventing aspiration as it helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the lungs during swallowing. This position promotes safer swallowing and minimizes the chances of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are less effective interventions for preventing aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink thickened liquids may help, but the position is more critical. Instructing the client to swallow with chin tucked is beneficial for some individuals but not as effective as positioning. Providing a cup with a lid does not directly address the risk of aspiration associated with dysphagia.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. Increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.' When managing hypertension, reducing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential. Excessive sodium can contribute to increased blood pressure, which is why limiting its consumption is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake would exacerbate hypertension, avoiding lactose is unrelated to managing hypertension, and increasing dairy product intake does not specifically address the issue of sodium intake in hypertension management.

5. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

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