Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare professional recommend?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Fresh fruit
• C. Pickles
• D. Soy sauce

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh fruit is naturally low in sodium and is a suitable choice for a low-sodium diet. It provides essential nutrients without adding significant amounts of sodium, making it a healthy option for individuals following a low-sodium diet. Canned soup, pickles, and soy sauce are high in sodium content and should be avoided by individuals on a low-sodium diet. Canned soups are often loaded with added salt, pickles are preserved in brine containing high sodium levels, and soy sauce is a condiment with a high sodium content.

2. A client with hyperkalemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To manage hyperkalemia, it is essential to decrease the intake of potassium-rich foods since excess potassium can worsen the condition. By understanding the need to decrease potassium-rich foods, the client shows comprehension of the dietary management required for hyperkalemia. Choice A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect since increasing sodium-rich foods is unrelated to managing hyperkalemia and could potentially lead to other health issues. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing sodium-rich foods is not the primary focus when managing hyperkalemia.

3. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid foods that are high in potassium.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
• D. Avoid foods that are high in sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is to increase the intake of vitamin D-rich foods. Vitamin D helps improve calcium absorption, which is beneficial for bone health and may help alleviate symptoms of osteoarthritis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is important for bone health, the focus should be on vitamin D for calcium absorption. Option B is incorrect as potassium is generally not restricted in osteoarthritis. Option D is also incorrect as sodium restriction is more relevant for conditions like hypertension or heart failure, not specifically for osteoarthritis.

5. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

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