ATI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing LPN
1. A client has a new diagnosis of renal calculi, and the nurse is teaching about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. You should increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the intake of calcium-rich foods when managing renal calculi. Calcium can contribute to the formation of stones in the kidneys, so reducing its intake can help prevent the development of new calculi and manage existing ones.
2. A client who underwent a total hip replacement is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees.
- B. Sit only in low chairs for comfort.
- C. Bend at the waist to pick up objects.
- D. Sleep on the affected side to prevent discomfort.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to avoid crossing the legs at the knees. This advice helps prevent dislocation of the new hip joint, which is a common concern after a total hip replacement surgery. Crossing the legs can place stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. It is important for the client to follow this precaution to promote proper healing and reduce complications postoperatively.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients. The nurse should identify which of the following as a risk factor for developing infections?
- A. Increased physical activity
- B. Lowered immune system function
- C. Regular health screenings
- D. Proper nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered immune system function. In older adults, a decline in immune system function increases the risk of developing infections. Increased physical activity (choice A) and proper nutrition (choice D) generally support immune function and overall health, reducing the risk of infections. Regular health screenings (choice C) are important for early detection of health issues but do not directly increase the risk of infections.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
5. How is resistant starch digested in the colon?
- A. bacterial fermentation.
- B. pancreatic amylase.
- C. hydrochloric acid.
- D. villi and microvilli.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the colon, resistant starch is digested by bacterial fermentation. The correct answer is A. During this process, short-chain fatty acids are produced. Pancreatic amylase, as mentioned in choice B, is responsible for breaking down starch in the small intestine, not in the colon. Choice C, hydrochloric acid, functions in the stomach to aid in the digestion of proteins, not starch. Villi and microvilli, as stated in choice D, are structures in the small intestine that absorb nutrients; they do not participate in the digestion of resistant starch in the colon.
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