a nurse is caring for a client who has acute renal failure which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect
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ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

2. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the colostomy care instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cleaning around the stoma with mild soap and water is crucial for colostomy care as it helps prevent infection and skin irritation. Changing the colostomy bag frequency, dietary modifications, or applying lotion are not primary aspects of stoma care. Proper cleaning around the stoma helps maintain hygiene and prevents complications, making it a key component of caring for a colostomy.

3. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for digoxin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for digoxin is to take their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia as a side effect, and monitoring the pulse helps in assessing the heart rate prior to medication administration. This precaution allows for the identification of any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention.

4. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.

5. A client with gout is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of purine-rich foods is essential in managing gout as purines break down into uric acid, contributing to gout symptoms. Increasing purine-rich foods would exacerbate the condition by increasing uric acid levels. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing sodium-rich foods (choice C) is not recommended for gout management, and decreasing potassium-rich foods (choice D) is unrelated to gout.

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