Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

2. A client with diverticulitis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of high-fiber foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of high-fat foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of high-fat foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is essential in managing diverticulitis as it helps prevent constipation and promotes bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications and improving overall colon health. Choice B is incorrect because decreasing high-fiber foods can worsen diverticulitis symptoms. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing high-fat foods can exacerbate diverticulitis, while decreasing high-fat foods is generally recommended to manage the condition.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of iodine-rich foods.
• B. You should avoid foods that contain iodine.
• C. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In hyperthyroidism, it is advisable to avoid foods that contain iodine to help manage the condition and prevent complications. Excessive iodine intake can exacerbate hyperthyroidism symptoms by stimulating the thyroid gland. Therefore, the nurse should include information about avoiding iodine-rich foods in the client's dietary management teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism symptoms, increasing dairy products is not specific to managing hyperthyroidism, and avoiding gluten is more relevant for conditions like celiac disease, not hyperthyroidism.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Swelling of the affected limb.
• B. Diminished peripheral pulses.
• C. Coolness of the affected limb.
• D. Redness and warmth of the affected limb.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Redness and warmth of the affected limb are classic signs of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to inflammation and increased blood flow. These symptoms occur as a result of the blood clot obstructing normal blood flow and causing localized inflammation in the affected limb. Swelling of the affected limb, diminished peripheral pulses, and coolness are not typically associated with DVT. Swelling can be present but is often accompanied by the characteristic redness and warmth. Diminished pulses and coolness are more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous thrombosis.

5. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

Similar Questions