ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
2. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
- B. Flaccid neck muscles.
- C. Petechial rash.
- D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
- B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
- D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.
4. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
- B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
- C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
- D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.
5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare professional recommend?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Fresh fruit
- C. Pickles
- D. Soy sauce
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fresh fruit is naturally low in sodium and is a suitable choice for a low-sodium diet. It provides essential nutrients without adding significant amounts of sodium, making it a healthy option for individuals following a low-sodium diet. Canned soup, pickles, and soy sauce are high in sodium content and should be avoided by individuals on a low-sodium diet. Canned soups are often loaded with added salt, pickles are preserved in brine containing high sodium levels, and soy sauce is a condiment with a high sodium content.
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