Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer medications to a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Administer medications through a secondary infusion.
• C. Mix medications with the enteral feeding.
• D. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before and after administering medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after administering medications is essential to prevent clogging of the tube and ensure proper delivery of medication. This practice helps maintain tube patency and decreases the risk of obstruction, which could compromise the client's treatment and nutrition. By flushing the tube, the healthcare provider ensures that the medication is completely delivered and that there are no residual drug particles left in the tube, which could lead to blockages or inconsistent dosing. Therefore, flushing the NG tube is a crucial step in the safe administration of medications to clients receiving enteral feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Dissolving medications in sterile water (Choice A) may not be suitable for all drugs, as some medications may require specific diluents. Administering medications through a secondary infusion (Choice B) is not the standard practice for enteral medication administration. Mixing medications with the enteral feeding (Choice C) can cause interactions between medications and the feeding formula, affecting their absorption and effectiveness.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a high-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. White bread
• B. Canned fruit
• C. Cheese
• D. Brown rice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Brown rice is a whole grain that is high in fiber, making it an excellent choice for a high-fiber diet. Foods like white bread, canned fruit, and cheese are typically low in fiber and would not be the best recommendation for a high-fiber diet. White bread is processed and lacks the fiber content found in whole grains like brown rice. Canned fruit, although containing some fiber, often has added sugars and lower fiber content compared to fresh fruits. Cheese is a dairy product that is generally low in fiber and not a significant source of dietary fiber compared to whole grains.

4. A client with dysphagia and at risk for aspiration needs care planning. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to drink thickened liquids.
• B. Instruct the client to swallow with chin tucked.
• C. Provide the client with a cup with a lid.
• D. Place the client in Fowler's position for meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in Fowler's position is crucial in preventing aspiration as it helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the lungs during swallowing. This position promotes safer swallowing and minimizes the chances of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are less effective interventions for preventing aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink thickened liquids may help, but the position is more critical. Instructing the client to swallow with chin tucked is beneficial for some individuals but not as effective as positioning. Providing a cup with a lid does not directly address the risk of aspiration associated with dysphagia.

5. What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare?

• A. To gather client information.
• B. To provide client education.
• C. To establish a therapeutic relationship.
• D. To document client care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare is to establish a therapeutic relationship between the healthcare provider and the client. Through effective communication, trust, empathy, and understanding can be fostered, which are essential for providing quality care and promoting positive health outcomes. Building a therapeutic relationship enhances patient satisfaction, improves adherence to treatment plans, and increases the likelihood of successful health outcomes.

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