Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is a characteristic finding in clients with fluid volume excess. The crackling sound occurs due to the presence of excess fluid in the lungs, impairing normal ventilation and gas exchange. Monitoring for crackles is essential for early detection and management of fluid overload in clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in fluid volume excess, hypervolemia leads to increased blood pressure (not hypotension), compensatory tachycardia (not bradycardia), and moist mucous membranes (not dry).

3. A client has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings indicates healing of the ulcer?

• A. Increase in drainage.
• B. Decrease in size.
• C. Presence of foul odor.
• D. Reddened wound edges.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a pressure ulcer is healing, there is a decrease in its size as the tissue repair progresses. This reduction in size is a positive indication of the healing process. An increase in drainage, presence of foul odor, or reddened wound edges are typically signs of infection or lack of improvement. Therefore, the correct answer is a decrease in size.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of pancreatitis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-fat foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching a client with pancreatitis is to decrease the intake of high-fat foods. This dietary modification is crucial in managing symptoms and preventing exacerbations of pancreatitis. High-fat foods can put a strain on the pancreas, potentially leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen pancreatitis. Choice C is unrelated to pancreatitis management, as lactose intolerance is not directly linked to pancreatitis. Choice D is also incorrect, as increasing dairy product intake may not be suitable for all individuals with pancreatitis due to the fat content in many dairy products.

5. A client has a new prescription for a potassium-sparing diuretic. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Bananas
• B. Oranges
• C. Spinach
• D. Apples

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients on potassium-sparing diuretics need to avoid high-potassium foods to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples are a low-potassium fruit, making them a suitable recommendation for clients on this type of diuretic. Bananas, oranges, and spinach are high-potassium foods that should be avoided by clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics to prevent complications such as hyperkalemia.

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