Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. When should discharge planning begin for a client admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation after a total hip arthroplasty?

• A. One week prior to the client's discharge
• B. Upon the client's admission to the care facility
• C. Once the discharge date is identified
• D. When the client addresses the topic with the nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin upon the client's admission to the care facility. This early start allows the healthcare team to conduct assessments, set goals, and coordinate services for a smooth transition back home or to the community. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely arrangements, leading to optimal outcomes and continuity of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until one week before discharge, after the discharge date is identified, or until the client brings up the topic may lead to rushed decision-making, inadequate arrangements, and a less effective transition process.

3. When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, which of the following actions should the nurse take when speaking with the client?

• A. Speak in a high-pitched voice.
• B. Exaggerate lip movements.
• C. Face the client when speaking.
• D. Use a monotone voice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, it is essential for the nurse to face the client when speaking. By facing the client, the nurse allows the individual to read lips and see facial expressions, which can significantly improve communication effectiveness. This approach facilitates better understanding and helps the client feel more connected during interactions. Speaking in a high-pitched voice (Choice A) is not recommended as it may distort speech sounds. Exaggerating lip movements (Choice B) can be patronizing and ineffective. Using a monotone voice (Choice D) lacks intonation that helps convey meaning and emotions in speech, making it harder for the client to understand.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is receiving IV therapy via a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following findings is an indication of infiltration?

• A. Redness at the infusion site
• B. Edema at the infusion site
• C. Warmth at the infusion site
• D. Oozing of blood at the infusion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema at the infusion site is an indication of infiltration, where fluid leaks into the surrounding tissues causing swelling. This can compromise the delivery of medication and fluids, potentially leading to complications. Redness, warmth, and oozing of blood are more suggestive of inflammation or infection rather than infiltration. Infiltration requires prompt recognition and intervention to prevent further issues with the IV therapy.

5. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

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