Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a 10-mL syringe with an 18-gauge needle.
• B. Cleanse the wound from the center outward.
• C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing.
• D. Pack the wound tightly with gauze.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, the nurse should cleanse the wound from the center outward. This technique helps prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the wound, reducing the risk of contamination and promoting effective wound healing. By using a circular motion from the cleanest area to the least clean areas, debris and bacteria are moved away from the wound site, decreasing the chances of infection.

3. A client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of salt.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included when a client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril is to 'Avoid foods high in potassium.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion. Therefore, clients taking lisinopril should be advised to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent potential complications associated with elevated potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing salt intake, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to lisinopril therapy and may not be beneficial or necessary for the client's condition.

4. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will take the medication with food.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

5. A client has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings indicates healing of the ulcer?

• A. Increase in drainage.
• B. Decrease in size.
• C. Presence of foul odor.
• D. Reddened wound edges.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a pressure ulcer is healing, there is a decrease in its size as the tissue repair progresses. This reduction in size is a positive indication of the healing process. An increase in drainage, presence of foul odor, or reddened wound edges are typically signs of infection or lack of improvement. Therefore, the correct answer is a decrease in size.

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