Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. A client has been on bed rest for 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to ambulate?

• A. The client uses a walker to move from the bed to the chair.
• B. The client has a strong cough.
• C. The client can bear weight on both legs.
• D. The client has a normal respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ability to bear weight on both legs indicates muscle strength and stability necessary for ambulation. This skill is crucial for the client to support their body weight and move independently when standing or walking. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using a walker, having a strong cough, or having a normal respiratory rate do not directly indicate the readiness to ambulate. The key factor in determining readiness for ambulation is the client's ability to bear weight on both legs, demonstrating the necessary strength for standing and walking.

3. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Massage the ulcer
• B. Apply a heating pad
• C. Reposition the client every 2 hours
• D. Use alcohol-based cleansers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a crucial intervention in the management of pressure ulcers. This action helps redistribute pressure, reducing the risk of further skin breakdown and promoting wound healing. Massaging the ulcer can cause further damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Applying a heating pad can increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided. Alcohol-based cleansers are too harsh for pressure ulcers and can irritate the skin, potentially delaying healing.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of lactose intolerance and is receiving teaching from a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• B. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in teaching a client with lactose intolerance is to avoid foods that contain lactose. Lactose intolerance results from the body's inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. By avoiding foods containing lactose, the client can manage symptoms and prevent complications associated with lactose intolerance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods (choice B) may be beneficial for general health but is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Avoiding gluten (choice C) is necessary for individuals with celiac disease, not lactose intolerance. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) would worsen symptoms in individuals with lactose intolerance due to the lactose content.

Similar Questions