Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of diverticulitis is being taught dietary management by a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements should the provider include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• B. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• C. You should decrease your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is essential in managing diverticulitis as it promotes regular bowel movements and prevents constipation, reducing the risk of complications and improving overall digestive health. Choice B is incorrect because lactose intolerance is different from diverticulitis and avoiding lactose is not a standard recommendation for diverticulitis. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing high-fiber foods would be counterproductive for managing diverticulitis. Choice D is wrong because increasing dairy products is not a primary dietary recommendation for diverticulitis management.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
• B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

4. A client has been prescribed enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You need to obtain routine blood tests to monitor the effects of this medication.
• B. You should administer the medication into your thigh.
• C. You should inject the medication once daily.
• D. You need to use a 1-inch needle to administer the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when educating a client prescribed enoxaparin is to inject the medication once daily. Enoxaparin is typically administered via subcutaneous injection once daily, usually in the abdomen, to prevent blood clots.

5. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

Similar Questions