Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

2. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with nephrotic syndrome, decreasing the intake of high-sodium foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms of the condition. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, swelling, and worsen the condition. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their high-sodium food intake aligns with the dietary management approach to help control nephrotic syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing high-sodium foods would exacerbate fluid retention, avoiding lactose is not specifically required for nephrotic syndrome, and increasing dairy products may not be necessary unless individualized based on the client's needs and lab values.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.

5. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a fecal collection system
• B. Apply a barrier cream
• C. Cleanse and dry the area
• D. Check the client's perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.

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