ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.
2. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- C. Use a 1-inch needle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.
4. A client has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
- D. Avoid foods that are high in sodium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is to increase the intake of vitamin D-rich foods. Vitamin D helps improve calcium absorption, which is beneficial for bone health and may help alleviate symptoms of osteoarthritis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is important for bone health, the focus should be on vitamin D for calcium absorption. Option B is incorrect as potassium is generally not restricted in osteoarthritis. Option D is also incorrect as sodium restriction is more relevant for conditions like hypertension or heart failure, not specifically for osteoarthritis.
5. What is a true statement about caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- A. The NG tube should be flushed with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
- B. The client should be positioned in a supine position.
- C. The NG tube should be advanced 5 cm if resistance is met.
- D. The client's nasal mucosa should be inspected daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours is crucial to maintain its patency and prevent blockages. This routine ensures the tube stays clear and functional, enabling proper delivery of medications and nutrition to the client. Regular flushing also helps prevent residue buildup or clogs within the tube, reducing risks like aspiration or inaccurate medication dosing.
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