Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
• B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.

3. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) states, 'I will shake the inhaler before each use.' Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before each use.
• B. I will use the inhaler immediately after meals.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will clean the mouthpiece with alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because shaking the inhaler before each use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, which is essential for effective administration. This action helps to disperse the medication evenly, enhancing its efficacy when inhaled. Proper mixing through shaking prevents inconsistent dosing and ensures that the client receives the correct amount of medication with each use.

4. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
• B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
• D. Weigh the client weekly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.

5. What is the primary goal of palliative care?

• A. To cure the client's illness.
• B. To prolong the client's life.
• C. To provide comfort and improve the quality of life.
• D. To prepare the client for surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of palliative care is to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses. Palliative care aims to address physical, emotional, and spiritual needs to enhance overall well-being rather than focusing on curing the underlying illness, prolonging life, or preparing for surgery. It emphasizes symptom management, pain relief, and support for patients and their families to ensure a better quality of life during the course of their illness.

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