a nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume deficit which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet

1. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Redness and warmth of the affected limb are classic signs of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to inflammation and increased blood flow. These symptoms occur as a result of the blood clot obstructing normal blood flow and causing localized inflammation in the affected limb. Swelling of the affected limb, diminished peripheral pulses, and coolness are not typically associated with DVT. Swelling can be present but is often accompanied by the characteristic redness and warmth. Diminished pulses and coolness are more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous thrombosis.

3. What action should the healthcare provider take for a patient with a chest tube?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level is essential for the chest tube's effective functioning. This maintains the integrity of the system, prevents air from entering the pleural space, and facilitates proper drainage. Stripping the drainage tubing, keeping the drainage system below the chest level, or clamping the chest tube during ambulation are not recommended practices and can lead to complications.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

5. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

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