ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client has been prescribed nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take one tablet every hour for chest pain.
- B. Store nitroglycerin tablets in a cool, dark place.
- C. Take nitroglycerin with food to reduce stomach upset.
- D. Take nitroglycerin with an antacid to prevent heartburn.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in a cool, dark place to maintain their potency. Storing them correctly ensures that they remain effective when needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking one tablet every hour is not the correct dosing regimen for nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is usually taken as needed at the onset of chest pain, with specific instructions from the healthcare provider. Taking nitroglycerin with food or antacids is not necessary, as it is usually placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.
2. A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is taken with food
- B. It can cause hyperglycemia
- C. It should be taken once daily
- D. It is an injectable medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.
3. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
- A. 711
- B. 1011
- C. 411
- D. 1211
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.
4. A nurse is caring for a toddler diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Use a designated stethoscope when caring for the toddler
- B. Wear an N95 respirator mask
- C. Remove the disposable gown after leaving the toddler’s room
- D. Place the toddler in a room with negative air pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope is the correct action when caring for a toddler diagnosed with RSV. This measure helps prevent the spread of infection to other clients by reducing the risk of contamination. Wearing an N95 respirator mask is not necessary for routine care of a toddler with RSV unless performing aerosol-generating procedures. Removing the disposable gown after leaving the toddler's room is important for infection control but not specific to RSV care. Placing the toddler in a room with negative air pressure is not a standard practice for managing RSV in toddlers.
5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
- B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
- C. No action is needed at this time.
- D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.
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