ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A client prescribed allopurinol for gout is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.
- C. Avoid foods high in purines.
- D. Increase your dietary intake of calcium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.' Clients taking allopurinol should be instructed to drink plenty of water to prevent kidney stones, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because allopurinol is usually taken without regard to meals. Option C is not directly related to the teaching about allopurinol, as it pertains more to dietary management of gout. Option D is also unrelated to allopurinol use for gout.
2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to 2000 mL per day.
- C. Increase your salt intake to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
- D. Exercise vigorously at least three times a week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.
3. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
- C. Collect the first voiding.
- D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.
4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. High-fiber, low-fat diet
- B. Low-fiber, high-protein diet
- C. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
- D. High-protein, high-fat diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.
5. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
- B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
- C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
- D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.
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