Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Report a decrease in urine output.
• D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

2. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

• A. Monitor for signs of illness.
• B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
• C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
• D. Monitor immunization compliance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.

3. A nurse is performing a dressing change for a client who has a sacral wound using negative pressure wound therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply skin preparation to wound edges
• B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
• C. Don sterile gloves
• D. Determine the client's pain level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's pain level first. Assessing the client's pain is crucial before proceeding with any procedure, including dressing changes. This step ensures that appropriate pain management measures can be implemented, making the wound care process as comfortable as possible for the patient. Applying skin preparation to wound edges (choice A) can come after addressing the pain. While cleansing the wound with normal saline (choice B) and donning sterile gloves (choice C) are important steps in wound care, they should follow the assessment of the client's pain level to prioritize the patient's comfort and well-being.

4. A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Hypoxia
• D. Hypothyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Fullness in the throat post-thyroidectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding, a critical complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect because it does not typically present with fullness in the throat. Choice C, Hypoxia, is not directly related to the symptom described and is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, Hypothyroidism, is also incorrect as it is a long-term condition and unlikely to manifest suddenly 4 hours postoperatively with throat fullness.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Fatigue
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

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