Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a brown discoloration of urine
• B. It should be taken with food
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It is safe during pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitrofurantoin can cause a harmless brown discoloration of urine. Choice B is also correct as it should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as nitrofurantoin does have side effects, such as gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice D is incorrect as nitrofurantoin is not recommended during the last month of pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is used to treat hypertension
• B. It can cause hair loss
• C. It may take several months to see results
• D. It is safe for use during pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.

5. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

• A. Decrease protein intake.
• B. Reduce sodium intake.
• C. Increase fluid intake.
• D. Decrease calcium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

Similar Questions