ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse working in a mobile health clinic is assessing a migrant farm worker. What finding should the nurse identify as a priority?
- A. Report of fatigue and fever
- B. Report of muscle twitching and skin rash
- C. Report of blurred vision
- D. Report of nasal congestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle twitching and a skin rash may indicate exposure to pesticides, which requires immediate intervention due to potential toxicity. Fatigue and fever (Choice A) are non-specific symptoms that may indicate various conditions but do not directly indicate pesticide exposure. Blurred vision (Choice C) and nasal congestion (Choice D) are also non-specific symptoms and are less likely to be related to pesticide exposure compared to muscle twitching and a skin rash.
2. A nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Perform weight-bearing exercises
- B. Avoid crossing the legs beyond the midline
- C. Avoid sitting in one position for prolonged periods
- D. Splint the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones and help prevent fractures, which is crucial for clients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline and avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods are general recommendations for preventing musculoskeletal issues but are not specific to osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area is not a standard practice for managing osteoporosis and preventing fractures.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer an antihistamine prior to transfusion.
- B. Check the client’s vital signs.
- C. Verify the client’s identification with another nurse.
- D. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client is to verify the client’s identification with another nurse. This is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct client, minimizing the risk of a transfusion reaction. Administering an antihistamine prior to transfusion (Choice A) is not the first priority and is not a standard practice. While checking the client’s vital signs (Choice B) is important, verifying the client’s identification takes precedence to prevent a critical error. Priming the IV tubing with normal saline (Choice D) is a necessary step in the process but should occur after verifying the client's identity.
5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
- C. Polyuria
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.
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