a nurse is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin which of the following should the nurse assess first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of levothyroxine. Which of the following should the healthcare provider do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's heart rate. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication that can increase metabolism. One of the potential side effects of levothyroxine is tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the patient's heart rate before administering the medication to monitor for any signs of tachycardia. Giving levothyroxine with food may affect its absorption, so it is typically recommended to administer it on an empty stomach. Administering it in the evening is not necessary unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider, and giving it with calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which laboratory value would indicate the need for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GFR of 14 mL/min indicates significant kidney damage and a severe decrease in kidney function. This level of GFR typically indicates the need for hemodialysis to help the kidneys perform their function adequately. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and managing chronic kidney disease but do not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

5. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.

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