Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary changes. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend to promote bone health?

• A. Leafy green vegetables
• B. Red meat
• C. Fortified orange juice
• D. Whole grains

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fortified orange juice. Fortified orange juice is often supplemented with calcium and vitamin D, both of which are essential for bone health and the prevention of osteoporosis. Leafy green vegetables (choice A) are good for overall health but may not provide sufficient calcium for bone health. Red meat (choice B) is a source of protein but is not a primary source of calcium. Whole grains (choice D) are beneficial for fiber intake but do not contain significant amounts of calcium or vitamin D necessary for bone health.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Vitamin B6
• D. Propranolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Constipation
• C. Infusion reaction
• D. Immunosuppression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

5. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?

• A. “I am experiencing some pain, but it’s tolerable.”
• B. “The nurse checked my vital signs earlier.”
• C. “I have not received any of my medications today.”
• D. “I am scheduled for therapy later today.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.

Similar Questions