Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

• A. Periodic tingling of fingers
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Leg cramps
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Significant abdominal distention
• B. Large bowel movements
• C. High-pitched bowel sounds
• D. Copious vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Pain radiating to the left arm
• B. Pain relieved by rest
• C. Pain worsening with deep breathing
• D. Pain relieved by antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack. This occurs due to the referred pain pathways shared by the heart and the left arm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pain relieved by rest (choice B) is more indicative of musculoskeletal pain rather than cardiac-related pain. Pain worsening with deep breathing (choice C) is often seen in conditions like pleurisy or pulmonary embolism, not myocardial infarction. Pain relieved by antacids (choice D) suggests gastrointestinal issues like heartburn or acid reflux, not cardiac-related pain.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?

• A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes
• B. Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding
• C. Steak, French fries, corn
• D. Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.

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