ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause a persistent cough
- B. It is a calcium channel blocker
- C. It is safe during pregnancy
- D. It should be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.
2. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.
3. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 2.6 mL
- B. 2.2 mL
- C. 3.5 mL
- D. 5.0 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct calculation is as follows: The toddler's weight in kg is 13 kg (28.6 lb / 2.2 lb/kg). The total daily dose is 260 mg (20 mg x 13 kg). Therefore, the dose per administration is 130 mg (260 mg / 2). Given the concentration of 250 mg/5 mL, the dose in mL is 2.6 mL (130 mg / (250 mg/5 mL)). Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choice B, 2.2 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choices C and D, 3.5 mL and 5.0 mL, are also incorrect and do not align with the accurate dosage calculation based on the given scenario.
4. A child is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take ferrous sulfate with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances iron absorption. Taking iron with milk (choice C) is not recommended as it reduces iron absorption. Taking it with meals (choice A) can hinder its absorption due to other food components. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) doesn't affect absorption but might cause gastrointestinal upset in some individuals.
5. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about increasing calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended as the best source of calcium?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Yogurt
- C. Spinach
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt is the best choice for increasing calcium intake in a client with osteoporosis. It provides around 300-400 mg of calcium per serving, making it an excellent food source for meeting their calcium needs. Broccoli, spinach, and almonds, while nutritious, do not provide as much calcium per serving as yogurt and are not as effective in helping clients with osteoporosis increase their calcium intake.
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