ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxytocin IV
- B. Perform fundal massage
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.
2. A community health nurse is reviewing information about infectious diseases with the nurses on her team. The nurse should remind the team that which of the following diseases is included in the list of nationally notifiable infectious diseases?
- A. Influenza
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Hepatitis B
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a reportable sexually transmitted disease, and healthcare providers must report cases to the CDC to track and prevent outbreaks. Influenza, Tuberculosis, and Hepatitis B are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases. Influenza is monitored for its epidemiology and impact on public health, but it is not classified as nationally notifiable. Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B are not included in the list of diseases that healthcare providers are required to report to public health authorities.
3. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in magnesium
- B. Take furosemide with food
- C. Eat foods that are rich in potassium
- D. Expect a decrease in blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Liver function
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client for allergies before administering propofol. Which of the following allergies is a contraindication to the medication?
- A. Eggs
- B. Milk
- C. Shrimp
- D. Peanuts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Propofol is contraindicated in clients with egg allergies because it contains egg lecithin, which can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. Milk, shrimp, and peanuts are not contraindications for propofol administration.
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