Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken with food
• D. It is an opioid medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization to a child. Which is a contraindication for this vaccine?

• A. Recent blood transfusion
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Minor acute illness
• D. Low-grade fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent blood transfusion. A recent blood transfusion can interfere with the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine, making it a contraindication. Choice B, allergy to penicillin, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, minor acute illness, is not a contraindication unless the child has a moderate to severe illness. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a contraindication as long as the child does not have a moderate to severe febrile illness.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Improved lung sounds
• D. Increased energy levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of accessory muscles.' Clients with COPD often experience airway obstruction, leading to the use of accessory muscles to breathe. This compensatory mechanism helps them overcome the increased work of breathing. Choice A, 'Decreased respiratory rate,' is incorrect because clients with COPD typically have an increased respiratory rate due to the need for more effort to breathe. Choice C, 'Improved lung sounds,' is incorrect because COPD is characterized by wheezes, crackles, and diminished breath sounds. Choice D, 'Increased energy levels,' is incorrect because clients with COPD often experience fatigue due to the increased work of breathing and impaired gas exchange.

4. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

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