ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
- B. Monitor for dyskinesia
- C. It can be taken with food
- D. It is an opioid medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?
- A. Gravida 3, Para 2
- B. Gravida 3, Para 3
- C. Gravida 4, Para 2
- D. Gravida 4, Para 3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Potassium levels
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels, can potentially cause liver damage as a side effect. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any abnormalities early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to directly impact potassium levels, blood glucose levels, or serum calcium levels. While these parameters may be monitored for other reasons, the priority when administering atorvastatin is to monitor liver function due to the risk of hepatotoxicity.
4. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. Sticky mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.
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