Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken with food
• D. It is an opioid medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.

2. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.

3. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

• A. Increase fluid intake
• B. Empty the bladder
• C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
• D. Take a sedative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

4. A nurse working in a mobile health clinic is assessing a migrant farm worker. What finding should the nurse identify as a priority?

• A. Report of fatigue and fever
• B. Report of muscle twitching and skin rash
• C. Report of blurred vision
• D. Report of nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle twitching and a skin rash may indicate exposure to pesticides, which requires immediate intervention due to potential toxicity. Fatigue and fever (Choice A) are non-specific symptoms that may indicate various conditions but do not directly indicate pesticide exposure. Blurred vision (Choice C) and nasal congestion (Choice D) are also non-specific symptoms and are less likely to be related to pesticide exposure compared to muscle twitching and a skin rash.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

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