Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

2. A healthcare professional is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?

• A. 2
• B. 5
• C. 7
• D. 9

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: '2'. Gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4 provide a good indication of appropriate tube placement. A pH of 2 is within this range, indicating that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a pH of 5, 7, or 9 does not fall within the expected acidic pH range of gastric fluid.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
• C. Temperature of 37.6°C
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

4. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Constipation
• C. Oral candidiasis
• D. Sedation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

5. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

• A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
• C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

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