a nurse is assessing four clients which client data should be reported to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.

3. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a family of a client who has seizure manifestations as a result of an inoperable brain tumor. What intervention should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the teaching is to pad the side rails of the bed. By padding the side rails, the nurse can help prevent injury if the patient experiences a seizure. Administering antiseizure medications promptly (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of a healthcare provider or according to a prescribed schedule. Using oral airway devices during seizures (Choice B) can pose risks and should be managed by healthcare professionals. Applying restraints during a seizure (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to further injury and complications.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.

5. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.

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