ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 250 mg of an antibiotic IM. Available is 3 g/5 mL. How many mL would the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 0.4 mL
- B. 0.3 mL
- C. 0.5 mL
- D. 0.6 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to be administered, convert 250 mg to grams (0.25 g). Then, set up a proportion: (0.25 g / 3 g) x 5 mL = 0.4167 mL, which rounds to 0.4 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional would administer 0.4 mL per dose. Choice B (0.3 mL) is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct conversion and calculation. Choice D (0.6 mL) is incorrect as it provides a value higher than the accurate calculation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?
- A. Abnormal movements of the mouth
- B. Inability to stand without assistance
- C. Paralysis of the right arm
- D. Loss of appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.
3. A nurse is caring for a laboring client and notes that the fetal heart rate begins to decelerate after the contraction has started. The lowest point of deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Change the client's position
- C. Increase IV fluids
- D. Call the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen during contractions. This is an emergency that requires prompt intervention. Changing the client's position helps improve placental blood flow, reducing stress on the fetus. Administering oxygen may be necessary if changing position does not resolve the decelerations. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it won't directly address the cause of late decelerations. Calling the healthcare provider should be done after immediate interventions like changing the client's position have been implemented and assessed.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?
- A. Hyporeactivity
- B. Excessive high-pitched cry
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An excessive high-pitched cry is a classic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from substances such as methadone. Neonates with neonatal abstinence syndrome often display irritability, tremors, and feeding difficulties. Hyporeactivity, acrocyanosis, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are not typical manifestations of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Hyporeactivity is more associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or sepsis, acrocyanosis is a common finding in newborns due to immature peripheral circulation, and a respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?
- A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
- B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
- C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
- D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.
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