Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 250 mg of an antibiotic IM. Available is 3 g/5 mL. How many mL would the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.4 mL
• B. 0.3 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 0.6 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to be administered, convert 250 mg to grams (0.25 g). Then, set up a proportion: (0.25 g / 3 g) x 5 mL = 0.4167 mL, which rounds to 0.4 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional would administer 0.4 mL per dose. Choice B (0.3 mL) is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct conversion and calculation. Choice D (0.6 mL) is incorrect as it provides a value higher than the accurate calculation.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about stress management. Which of the following activities should the nurse recommend to reduce stress?

• A. Watching television
• B. Deep breathing exercises
• C. Drinking coffee
• D. Avoiding exercise

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep breathing exercises are effective in reducing stress by promoting relaxation and lowering heart rate, making them a recommended technique. Watching television may not actively reduce stress but can serve as a distraction. Drinking coffee, which contains caffeine, may increase anxiety levels. Avoiding exercise can lead to pent-up stress and tension rather than reducing it.

3. A nurse is preparing to perform a routine abdominal assessment for a client. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Perform palpation before auscultation
• B. Perform percussion before auscultation
• C. Perform palpation after auscultation
• D. Perform inspection after auscultation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform palpation after auscultation. When conducting an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation. Inspecting the abdomen allows the nurse to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by listening for bowel sounds during auscultation. Percussion helps assess the density of abdominal contents before palpation for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because palpation should always come last in the sequence of an abdominal assessment.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Advanced age
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Regular skin assessments
• D. Adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
• B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

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