Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 250 mg of an antibiotic IM. Available is 3 g/5 mL. How many mL would the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.4 mL
• B. 0.3 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 0.6 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to be administered, convert 250 mg to grams (0.25 g). Then, set up a proportion: (0.25 g / 3 g) x 5 mL = 0.4167 mL, which rounds to 0.4 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional would administer 0.4 mL per dose. Choice B (0.3 mL) is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct conversion and calculation. Choice D (0.6 mL) is incorrect as it provides a value higher than the accurate calculation.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed gabapentin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Renal function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Cardiac rhythm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal function. Gabapentin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so monitoring renal function is essential to ensure the drug is being cleared effectively from the body. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A) is not a priority for gabapentin as it is not primarily metabolized by the liver. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are not directly impacted by gabapentin. Cardiac rhythm (choice D) monitoring is not typically necessary for clients on gabapentin unless they have pre-existing cardiac conditions that may be exacerbated by the medication.

4. A nurse is providing teaching for a child who is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with milk
• B. Take with a glass of orange juice
• C. Take at bedtime
• D. Take with meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate should be taken with orange juice (vitamin C) to enhance the absorption of iron. Taking it with milk (choice A) is not recommended as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Taking it at bedtime (choice C) or with meals (choice D) may lead to decreased absorption due to interactions with other food or medications.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.

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