a nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients the nurse should identify which of the following as a risk factor for devel
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients. The nurse should identify which of the following as a risk factor for developing infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered immune system function. In older adults, a decline in immune system function increases the risk of developing infections. Increased physical activity (choice A) and proper nutrition (choice D) generally support immune function and overall health, reducing the risk of infections. Regular health screenings (choice C) are important for early detection of health issues but do not directly increase the risk of infections.

2. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.

3. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.

5. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

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