Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
• B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
• C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
• D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

3. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Apical pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

5. A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

• A. “I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I’ll look for a league.”
• B. “I’m glad I’ll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can’t wait to get back to running.”
• C. “I’m so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this, and why am I not getting better?”
• D. “I feel like I’ll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.

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