a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

2. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

3. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.

4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

5. A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.

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