ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
2. A patient took an overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the patient?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Activated charcoal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, a key component in detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites, thus preventing liver damage. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antidote. Activated charcoal is used to limit absorption in cases of poisoning, but it is not the antidote for acetaminophen overdose.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 mL
- B. 2 mL
- C. 3 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?
- A. Level of consciousness.
- B. Skin turgor.
- C. Deep-tendon reflexes.
- D. Bowel sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.
5. When assessing a client with signs of delirium, which factor should be the nurse's priority in determining the cause?
- A. Medication history
- B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
- C. Psychosocial stressors
- D. Environmental factors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse assesses a client with signs of delirium, the priority in determining the cause should be focusing on fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Delirium can often be linked to imbalances in these essential elements, making it crucial to address them promptly. While medication history, psychosocial stressors, and environmental factors can also contribute to delirium, they should be assessed after addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to their immediate impact on cognitive function.
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