ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and has a new prescription for a regular diet. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. Presence of bowel sounds
- B. Client reports nausea
- C. Client is vomiting
- D. Absent bowel sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent bowel sounds are concerning as they indicate potential complications such as ileus, which is a risk after abdominal surgery. The absence of bowel sounds can suggest decreased or absent intestinal motility, which may lead to complications if not addressed promptly. The nurse should notify the provider immediately to assess the situation and intervene accordingly. Choices A and B are common postoperative occurrences and do not necessarily warrant immediate provider notification. Choice C, vomiting, while concerning, may be a common postoperative symptom; however, absent bowel sounds are a more critical finding that requires prompt attention.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
- B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
- C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
- D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.
3. A client receiving IV fluids has developed phlebitis. What action should the nurse take next after removing the IV catheter?
- A. Place a warm compress over the IV site
- B. Record the findings in the client's chart
- C. Notify the client's primary care provider
- D. Insert a new IV catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After removing an IV catheter due to phlebitis, the next step is to apply a warm compress over the IV site. This helps reduce inflammation and discomfort for the client. Recording the findings in the client's chart is important for documentation purposes but not the immediate next step. Notifying the client's primary care provider may be necessary depending on the severity of the phlebitis, but it is not the initial action. Inserting a new IV catheter is not appropriate until the phlebitis has resolved.
4. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?
- A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
- B. Age, gender, and family history
- C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
- D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.
5. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
- A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
- B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
- C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
- D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.
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