Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?

• A. Shakiness or Tremors
• B. Confusion or Irritability
• C. Hunger
• D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the most appropriate next step?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Notify the provider and discontinue the IV infusion
• C. Increase the IV flow rate to clear the blockage
• D. Elevate the extremity and apply an ice pack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phlebitis, inflammation of a vein, is a complication that requires prompt action. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a warm compress, increasing the IV flow rate, or applying an ice pack are not appropriate interventions for phlebitis. Warm compresses may worsen inflammation, increasing the IV flow rate could exacerbate the condition, and ice packs are not recommended for phlebitis.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a colostomy?

• A. Empty the colostomy bag regularly
• B. Provide a high-fiber diet
• C. Monitor for signs of infection
• D. Change the colostomy bag every 3 days

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emptying the colostomy bag regularly is essential to prevent leakage and infection. By regularly emptying the bag, the risk of irritation to the skin surrounding the stoma is reduced. Providing a high-fiber diet is important for overall bowel health but is not directly related to colostomy care. While monitoring for signs of infection is crucial, the primary focus should be on proper bag emptying. Changing the colostomy bag every 3 days may not be necessary for all patients and could vary based on individual needs and the type of colostomy.

5. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Disulfiram
• C. Chlordiazepoxide
• D. Phenobarbital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

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