Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube
• B. Maintain the drainage below the level of the chest
• C. Elevate the chest tube above chest level
• D. Avoid frequent dressing changes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system is to maintain the drainage below the level of the chest. This position allows proper drainage of fluids and helps prevent complications such as backflow of blood or fluids into the chest cavity. Clamping the chest tube (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Elevating the chest tube above chest level (Choice C) is also incorrect because it can impede proper drainage. Avoiding frequent dressing changes (Choice D) is important to prevent introducing infection, but it is not directly related to the position of the drainage system.

3. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction who is concerned about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Instruct the client to remain in bed until the fatigue resolves
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to perform all self-care tasks for the client
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach allows the client to regain confidence in their abilities and fosters independence. Option A is incorrect as prolonged bed rest can lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Option C is not promoting independence as it involves delegating all self-care tasks to others. Option D involves family assistance, which may be helpful but does not directly promote the client's independence in self-care.

4. What should a healthcare provider prioritize for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

• A. Monitor for hyperactivity
• B. Monitor for signs of depression
• C. Monitor for changes in self-esteem
• D. Monitor for changes in energy levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the priority is to monitor for signs of depression. Individuals with bipolar disorder are at risk of severe depressive episodes, making it crucial to watch for signs of depression. While changes in energy levels and self-esteem are common in bipolar disorder, they are not the primary focus. Hyperactivity is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder, so monitoring for depression is the priority in this case.

5. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?

• A. Check for facial droop
• B. Assess speech clarity
• C. Perform a neurological assessment
• D. Call for emergency assistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.

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