a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation which of the following findings should the nurse
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1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the most appropriate next step?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phlebitis, inflammation of a vein, is a complication that requires prompt action. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a warm compress, increasing the IV flow rate, or applying an ice pack are not appropriate interventions for phlebitis. Warm compresses may worsen inflammation, increasing the IV flow rate could exacerbate the condition, and ice packs are not recommended for phlebitis.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of fluid overload include edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling, shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, and weight gain is often seen as a result of excess fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because high blood pressure and jugular venous distention are more indicative of conditions like heart failure, while low blood pressure and cyanosis are seen in conditions like shock or poor perfusion. Tachycardia and dizziness are not typical signs of fluid overload.

4. What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.

5. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels, which can lead to muscle weakness due to impaired muscle function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other medical conditions and not typically expected in hypokalemia. Muscle stiffness is more commonly associated with conditions like tetany or muscle cramps, bradycardia is more commonly associated with issues like heart block or hypothyroidism, and hyperreflexia is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injuries.

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