Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. Serum creatinine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

4. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse apply sterile gloves. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates sterile technique?

• A. Putting a glove on the dominant hand first
• B. Removing gloves and putting on a sterile gown first
• C. Putting sterile gloves last
• D. Applying gloves without touching outer surfaces

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting the glove on the dominant hand first is a key step in maintaining sterile technique as it reduces the risk of contamination. By covering the dominant hand first, the nurse minimizes the risk of contaminating the other hand during the glove application process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B introduces the concept of a sterile gown, which is not relevant to the question about applying sterile gloves. Choice C is incorrect as putting sterile gloves last does not follow the correct sequence of steps in maintaining sterility. Choice D, while important, is not as critical as covering the dominant hand first when applying sterile gloves.

5. A client is expressing concern about extreme fatigue following an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy to promote independence?

• A. Instruct the client to rest until fully recovered
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence. This approach helps the client regain confidence and autonomy in performing self-care activities. Instructing the client to rest until fully recovered (Choice A) may lead to decreased muscle strength and independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice C) does not empower the client to actively participate in their care. Involving the client's family (Choice D) may provide support but does not directly encourage the client's independence.

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