Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

3. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Obesity and diabetes
• C. Dehydration and malnutrition
• D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

4. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Assess symptoms, monitor vital signs, order ECG
• B. Administer medications and monitor for pain
• C. Administer thrombolytics and oxygen therapy
• D. Educate patient on lifestyle changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

Similar Questions