Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has dumping syndrome about measures to reduce manifestations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink plenty of fluids after meals
• B. Increase sugar intake
• C. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in teaching a client with dumping syndrome is to 'Avoid foods high in sugar content.' Dumping syndrome occurs when high-sugar foods move too quickly into the small intestine, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and bloating. By avoiding foods high in sugar content, the client can reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Drinking plenty of fluids after meals may exacerbate symptoms by speeding up the movement of food through the digestive system. Increasing sugar intake would worsen dumping syndrome symptoms. While eating smaller, more frequent meals is a good strategy, the key emphasis should be on avoiding high-sugar foods.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
• B. Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5°C (105°F)
• C. Cleanse the wound from the center outwards
• D. Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation is to cleanse the wound from the center outwards. This technique helps prevent contamination by pushing debris away from the wound rather than into it. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is important during wound care but not specifically mentioned for wound irrigation. Choice B is incorrect because warming the irrigation solution to a specific temperature is not a standard recommendation and can potentially harm the client. Choice D is incorrect because the size of the syringe may vary based on the wound size and depth, so using a 20 mL syringe is not a universal guideline.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and new onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs
• C. Administer an antibiotic
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.

5. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
• B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
• C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
• D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

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