a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation which of the following findings should the nurse
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1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.

4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from acute pancreatitis. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients recovering from acute pancreatitis should consume a low-fat diet to reduce the workload on the pancreas and prevent exacerbation. This diet helps in minimizing the stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion, which aids in the recovery process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake or increasing protein intake may not be necessary for acute pancreatitis, and acetaminophen may not be the first-line choice for pain management in this condition.

5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Administering antibiotics and providing oxygen therapy are essential in managing pneumonia. Antibiotics help treat the infection caused by bacteria, while oxygen therapy improves lung function. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators may not be the primary treatment for pneumonia. Choice C is not the priority in pneumonia management, although fluids and rest are important for recovery. Choice D is also not a primary intervention in pneumonia management.

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