a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation which of the following findings should the nurse
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1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the home environment warm. Raynaud's disease causes vasospasm in response to cold, so maintaining a warm environment can help prevent attacks. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake, elevating legs when sitting, or reducing sodium intake are not specific to managing Raynaud's disease.

3. What are the potential complications of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection and electrolyte imbalance are common complications of TPN. Infection can occur due to the invasive nature of TPN, which provides a direct route for pathogens. Electrolyte imbalances can arise from the composition of the TPN solution or improper monitoring. Hyperglycemia and sepsis (Choice B) are potential complications but are not as directly associated with TPN as infection and electrolyte imbalance. Kidney failure and hypovolemia (Choice C) are less common complications of TPN. Fluid overload and liver damage (Choice D) are potential complications but are not as frequently observed as infection and electrolyte imbalance.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about using a cane with a client who has left-leg weakness. What instruction should the nurse give?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with left-leg weakness using a cane is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This technique provides stability and support while walking. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side to support the weaker leg. Choice B is incorrect as advancing the cane and the strong leg together may not provide adequate support and balance. Choice D is incorrect as the distance to advance the cane with each step can vary depending on the individual's needs and abilities.

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