Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. When a client with dementia frequently becomes agitated, what should the nurse prioritize investigating?

• A. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
• B. Medication history
• C. Environmental factors
• D. Cognitive functioning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to prioritize investigating the client's medication history. This is important because certain medications can contribute to agitation in clients with dementia. Understanding the medication history can help identify potential causes of agitation and guide appropriate interventions. Checking for fluid and electrolyte imbalances is important in healthcare but may not directly relate to the client's agitation. While environmental factors can influence behavior, investigating the medication history is more pertinent in this case. Cognitive functioning assessment is crucial in dementia care but may not be the priority when addressing acute agitation.

3. What are the side effects of chemotherapy, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, vomiting; manage with antiemetics
• B. Hair loss and anemia; manage with blood transfusions
• C. Diarrhea and fatigue; manage with hydration
• D. Weight gain and high blood pressure; manage with diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct side effects of chemotherapy mentioned in this question are nausea and vomiting. These side effects are commonly managed with antiemetics to improve the quality of life for patients undergoing chemotherapy. Choice B (Hair loss and anemia) is incorrect as hair loss and anemia are potential side effects of chemotherapy but are not addressed in this question. Choice C (Diarrhea and fatigue) is also incorrect as it does not match the side effects provided. Choice D (Weight gain and high blood pressure) is inaccurate as these are not typical side effects of chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication into the client's nondominant arm.
• B. Pull the skin laterally before inserting the needle.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin subcutaneously is to pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger. Pinching the skin helps to lift the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of injecting into the muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as the injection site for enoxaparin is typically in the abdomen or thigh, not the arm. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the skin laterally is not a recommended technique for subcutaneous injections. Choice C is also incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the body's response to low blood sugar. During hypoglycemia, the body releases epinephrine, leading to sympathetic nervous system activation. This can result in bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism to preserve glucose for vital organs such as the brain. Tachycardia, hypotension, and diaphoresis are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia when it progresses to severe stages and the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed.

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