Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has multiple fractures following a motor-vehicle crash. For which of the following client statements should the nurse recommend a referral to an occupational therapist?

• A. I am frustrated that I cannot lift my arm to comb my hair.
• B. I am upset that I can't hold a pencil anymore.
• C. I am embarrassed that I cannot open my milk carton.
• D. I am so frustrated that I cannot even open my milk carton for breakfast.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to perform activities of daily living, such as opening a milk carton, suggests difficulties with fine motor skills. Occupational therapists specialize in helping individuals regain independence in such tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address fine motor skills related to activities of daily living, therefore not warranting an occupational therapy referral. Choice A mentions lifting the arm, which involves gross motor skills rather than fine motor skills. Choice B involves holding a pencil, which is more related to hand dexterity and strength rather than fine motor skills. Choice C, opening a milk carton, could be related to fine motor skills but is not as clear-cut as the inability described in Choice D, where the frustration is explicitly about the inability to perform a daily living task.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Furrows in the tongue.
• D. Polyuria.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. Which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration?

• A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
• B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.

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