Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is being taught about nonstress testing. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This test will determine the length of your cervix.
• B. You will have your blood pressure taken frequently during the test.
• C. You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.
• D. This test will take about 5 minutes to complete.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a nonstress test, the client is required to press a handheld button whenever fetal movement is felt, which is then recorded on the monitor. This action helps assess the baby's heart rate in response to its movements, providing valuable information about the baby's well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the nonstress test does not involve determining the length of the cervix, monitoring blood pressure, or being completed in 5 minutes. These aspects are not part of the nonstress testing procedure and are unrelated to the purpose of the test.

2. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

• A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
• B. Pregnancy and smoking
• C. Obesity and varicose veins
• D. Hypertension and high cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with ascites?

• A. Monitor abdominal girth and administer diuretics
• B. Administer pain relief and monitor fluid intake
• C. Restrict fluid intake and encourage bed rest
• D. Administer albumin and check electrolyte levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When managing a patient with ascites, monitoring abdominal girth is crucial as it helps assess the extent of fluid retention. Administering diuretics is also essential to help reduce fluid buildup in the body, thereby managing ascites effectively. Option B is incorrect as pain relief is not the primary intervention for ascites. Option C is incorrect as restricting fluid intake can worsen the condition by causing dehydration and further fluid imbalances. Option D is incorrect as administering albumin and checking electrolyte levels are not first-line interventions for managing ascites; these interventions may be considered in specific cases but are not the initial steps in managing ascites.

4. What is the primary intervention for a patient with a pneumothorax?

• A. Insert a chest tube
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Monitor respiratory rate
• D. Administer analgesics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert a chest tube. This intervention is considered the definitive treatment for a pneumothorax as it helps remove air or fluid from the pleural space, re-expanding the lung. Administering oxygen (Choice B) can be supportive but is not the primary intervention to treat a pneumothorax. Monitoring respiratory rate (Choice C) is important but does not address the underlying issue of air in the pleural space. Administering analgesics (Choice D) may help manage pain but does not treat the pneumothorax itself.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

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