ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should be addressed immediately?
- A. Frequent episodes of wandering at night
- B. Restlessness and agitation
- C. Mild confusion during the day
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia should be addressed immediately as they can indicate underlying causes such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs. Addressing these symptoms promptly can help prevent the escalation of behavioral issues and improve the client's quality of life. While frequent episodes of wandering at night, mild confusion during the day, and incontinence are also important issues to address in clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation usually require immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
2. A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. What is the best initial intervention?
- A. Encouraging the patient to avoid triggers
- B. Encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings
- C. Providing the patient with relaxation techniques
- D. Advising the patient to avoid social situations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best initial intervention for a patient with PTSD experiencing flashbacks is to provide relaxation techniques. This approach helps the patient manage flashbacks by focusing on the present moment, promoting relaxation, and reducing anxiety associated with the traumatic memories. Encouraging the patient to avoid triggers or social situations may not address the immediate distress caused by flashbacks, while talking about feelings may not be as effective as providing immediate tools to manage the distressing symptoms.
3. You are dispatched to a residence where an 8-year-old boy was pulled from a swimming pool. When you arrive, a neighbor is performing rescue breathing on the child. After confirming that the child is not breathing, you should:
- A. begin chest compressions and reassess in 2 minutes.
- B. assess for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds.
- C. tell the neighbor to continue rescue breathing as you apply the AED.
- D. ask the neighbor how long the child was submerged under the water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of drowning, it is crucial to assess for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds to determine if chest compressions are needed. This quick assessment helps determine the next steps in providing appropriate care to the patient. Performing chest compressions without confirming the need may not be beneficial and could potentially harm the patient if unnecessary.
4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?
- A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
- B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
- C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
- D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
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