ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should be addressed immediately?
- A. Frequent episodes of wandering at night
- B. Restlessness and agitation
- C. Mild confusion during the day
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia should be addressed immediately as they can indicate underlying causes such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs. Addressing these symptoms promptly can help prevent the escalation of behavioral issues and improve the client's quality of life. While frequent episodes of wandering at night, mild confusion during the day, and incontinence are also important issues to address in clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation usually require immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
2. A client with COPD is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
- D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway patency by preventing the collapse of small airways during exhalation, improving breathing efficiency. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may be appropriate for some COPD patients but is not the priority intervention. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may help improve breathing but is not as specific as pursed-lip breathing for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing may be beneficial in other respiratory conditions, but it is not the most effective intervention for COPD.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking enalapril for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg
- B. Swelling in the legs
- C. Persistent cough
- D. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.
4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment?
- A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- B. Observation, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation
- C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
- D. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for any abnormalities, palpating to assess tenderness and chest expansion, percussion to evaluate underlying structures, and auscultation to listen to lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect because observation is generally part of inspection, not a separate component. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation should come before percussion in a respiratory assessment. Choice D is incorrect because inspection should precede palpation in a structured assessment.
5. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer potassium-wasting diuretics
- B. Encourage a low-potassium diet
- C. Administer potassium supplements
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.
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