ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A client has hyperthermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Submerge the client's feet in ice water.
- B. Cover the client with a thermal blanket.
- C. Administer oral acetaminophen.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering oral acetaminophen is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperthermia. Acetaminophen helps to reduce fever by lowering the body's temperature. Submerging the client's feet in ice water can lead to shock and is not recommended. Using a thermal blanket may worsen the condition by trapping heat. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to managing hyperthermia.
2. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
- B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
- C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
- D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin
- B. Administer the injection in the client's thigh
- C. Use an intradermal needle for the injection
- D. Avoid touching the site after injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.
4. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.
5. What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucagon
- B. Provide a source of glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar
- D. Assess vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.
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