Nursing Elites

1. A client has hyperthermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Submerge the client's feet in ice water.
• B. Cover the client with a thermal blanket.
• C. Administer oral acetaminophen.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering oral acetaminophen is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperthermia. Acetaminophen helps to reduce fever by lowering the body's temperature. Submerging the client's feet in ice water can lead to shock and is not recommended. Using a thermal blanket may worsen the condition by trapping heat. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to managing hyperthermia.

2. A client with asthma and a new prescription for an ipratropium inhaler is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will rinse my mouth after each use
• B. I should wait 5 minutes before taking a second puff
• C. I should take this medication when I wake up
• D. I should wait 1 minute before taking a second puff

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because waiting 1 minute between puffs ensures proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as rinsing the mouth is not a specific instruction related to using the inhaler. Choice B is incorrect as waiting 5 minutes between puffs is longer than necessary. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of medication administration is not specified in the question.

3. How can a healthcare provider prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in post-operative patients?

• A. Encourage early ambulation
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Apply compression stockings
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above options are essential in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in post-operative patients. Encouraging early ambulation helps prevent blood stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Administering anticoagulants can prevent blood clots from forming. Compression stockings promote blood flow, reducing the likelihood of clot formation. Each intervention plays a crucial role in DVT prevention, making the correct answer 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are not exclusive of each other but rather work synergistically to provide comprehensive prevention against DVT.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake
• B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
• C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
• D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.

5. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

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